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標題: definite integral [打印本頁]

作者: henryc0985    時間: 2011-5-12 12:01 AM     標題: definite integral

hkale pure maths 2006 q8 c(ii)why the summation of the bunch of expression equals to pi(an)/2
i don't understand why in a(i) i calculate the definite integral of cosmxcosnxdx = 0
but there is a non-zero value for the summation of c(ii)
作者: Simon    時間: 2011-5-12 12:02 AM

please post the question here
作者: henryc0985    時間: 2011-5-12 12:07 AM

here is the question and marking
作者: Simon    時間: 2011-5-12 12:09 AM

From part a, what answers do you get?
作者: henryc0985    時間: 2011-5-12 12:11 AM

marking's answer:
a(i) 0
(ii)0 for the first one and pi/2 for the latter one
作者: Simon    時間: 2011-5-12 12:15 AM     標題: 回覆 5# henryc0985 的帖子

for the summation, when m =/= n
then the integral becomes 0
for m = n, the integral becomes pi/2, having a constant of a[subtag]n[/subtag]
作者: henryc0985    時間: 2011-5-12 12:17 AM

so that is only the m=n term is left and other terms are equal 0?
作者: Simon    時間: 2011-5-12 12:19 AM     標題: 回覆 7# henryc0985 的帖子

yes, absolutely
作者: henryc0985    時間: 2011-5-12 12:20 AM

thank you very much




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