標題: definite integral [打印本頁] 作者: henryc0985 時間: 2011-5-12 12:01 AM 標題: definite integral
hkale pure maths 2006 q8 c(ii)why the summation of the bunch of expression equals to pi(an)/2
i don't understand why in a(i) i calculate the definite integral of cosmxcosnxdx = 0
but there is a non-zero value for the summation of c(ii) 作者: Simon 時間: 2011-5-12 12:02 AM
please post the question here 作者: henryc0985 時間: 2011-5-12 12:07 AM
here is the question and marking 作者: Simon 時間: 2011-5-12 12:09 AM
From part a, what answers do you get? 作者: henryc0985 時間: 2011-5-12 12:11 AM
marking's answer:
a(i) 0
(ii)0 for the first one and pi/2 for the latter one 作者: Simon 時間: 2011-5-12 12:15 AM 標題: 回覆 5# henryc0985 的帖子
for the summation, when m =/= n
then the integral becomes 0
for m = n, the integral becomes pi/2, having a constant of a[subtag]n[/subtag] 作者: henryc0985 時間: 2011-5-12 12:17 AM
so that is only the m=n term is left and other terms are equal 0? 作者: Simon 時間: 2011-5-12 12:19 AM 標題: 回覆 7# henryc0985 的帖子
yes, absolutely 作者: henryc0985 時間: 2011-5-12 12:20 AM